IBPS CWE Specialist Officers General English Questions 2013

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[[This post brings you the questions of General English Aptitude section in IBPS CWE Specialist Officers examination held in 2013 ]]
IBPS CWE Specialist Officers General English Questions 2013
[[Reading Comprehension ]]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below.
All great thinkers live and move on a high plane of thought. It is only there can live harmoniously and attain that serenity which comes from ideal companionship. The studies of all great thinkers must and range along the highest altitudes of human thought. I can not remember the name of any illuminative genius who did not drink his inspiration from the fountains of ancient Greek and Hebrew writers or such among the moderns as were pupils in ancient thought, and in turn, became masters in their own,/have always thought that the strangest argument in favour of the Baconian theory was that, no man, however indubitable his genius, could have written the plays and sonnets that have come down to us under Shakespeare’s name who had not the liberal education of Bacon. How this habit of intercourse with the Gods makes one impatient of mere men. The magnificent ideals that have ever hinted the human mind and given us our highest proofs of a future immortality by reason of the impossibility of their fulfillment here are splintered into atoms by contact with life’s realities. Hence, comes our sublime discontent. You will notice that your first sensation after reading a great book is one of melancholy and dissatisfaction. The ideas, sentiments, expression are so for beyond those of ordinary working life that you can not turn aside from one to the other without an acute sensation and consciousness of the contrast. And the principles are you become imbued with them, to come down and mix in the squalid surroundings of ordinary humanity. It may spiritual or intellectual life. But whatever it is, it becomes inevitable. A habitual meditations on the vest problems, that underline human life and are brit into human destinies thoughts of immortality, of the littleness of mere man, of the greatness of man soul, of the splendours of the universe. That are invisible to the ordinary traffickers in the street, as the vastness of St. Peter’s is to the spider that weaves her web in a corner of the dome-these things do not fit men to understand the average human being or tolerate with patience the sordid wretchedness of the unregenerate masses. It is easy to understand therefore, why such thinkers fly to the solitude of their own thoughts or the silent companionship of the immortals and if there care to present their views in prose or verse to the world, that these views take a sombre and melancholy setting from the pale cost of thought in which they were engendered.
  1. On what plane must great thinkers live and more?
    1. On a high plane of thought
    2. On mundane plane
    3. On mystical plane
    4. On psychological plane
    5. In harmoniously and attain that serenity
  2. Great thinkers can live harmoniously only
    1. ordinary, down to Earth people
    2. on a high plane of thought
    3. pedantic people
    4. monks
    5. by the inspiration from fountains of ancient Greek and Habrew writers
  3. Most of the great souls were inspired by
    1. ancient Indian scriptures
    2. Shakespeare
    3. St. Peter
    4. ancient Greek and Hebrew writers
    5. liberal education of Bacon
  4. Is liberal education necessary to produce great literature?
    1. Yes
    2. No
    3. Partly necessary
    4. Sometimes necessary
    5. None of these
  5. What is the argument in support of the Baconian theory?
    1. That Shakespeare was divinely inspired
    2. That the plays and poems that have come down to us under Shakespeare’s name were not written by him
    3. That Shakespeare’s written were inspired by Baconian ideals
    4. That no man could have written by plays and sonnets that have come down to us under Shakespeare’s name who had not the liberal education of Bacon
    5. None of the above
  6. What is the unique feature of great literature?
    1. The magnificent ideals of man’s future immortality is interwoven with life’s realities
    2. Man’s immortality is seen as an impossibility
    3. Man’s immortality is possible here and now
    4. Life’s physical realities are given supremacy over life’s spiritual realities
    5. None of the above
  7. In the context of the passage, what is meant by sublime discontent?
    1. To be spiritually unhappy
    2. Discontent which is great in magnitude
    3. Melancholy and dissatisfaction followed by a superhuman pain
    4. Silent companionship of all these immortals entity
    5. None of the above
  8. Why does the reading of a great book make one melancholy and disappointed?
    1. Because the ideas sentiment, expressions beyond ordinary life
    2. Because of the lofty, superhuman principles
    3. The views take a sombre and melancholy
    4. 1 and 2
    5. None of the above
  9. What are the things that make it hard to understand the average human being?
    1. Thought of immortality
    2. Thoughts of the littleness of man and of the greatness of man’s soul
    3. Thoughts of the splendours of the universe
    4. All of the above
    5. None of the above
  10. What do the great thinkers do when they understood by the common mass?
    1. They escape to jungles
    2. They become ascetics and live in ashramas
    3. They commit suicide
    4. They fly to the solitude of their own thoughts or t companionship of the immortals
    5. None of the above
[[ Sentence Arrangement ]]
Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in proper sequence to from a meaningful paragraph, then answer the question given below them.
  1. When finally he regained consciousness, he saw that the sea was or calm as a pond.
  2. “I’m always peaceful but it is the wind that creates waves and turns me into a monster”, the Goddess continued.
  3. “Do not blame me, my son”, said the Goddess.
  4. A man who had survived a ship wreck struggled mightily against the waves and finally succeeded in reaching the shore, more dead than alive.
  5. The sea heard him shout angrily and took the from of a Goddess to defend itself.
  6. “How deceitful you are!” he shouted at the sea, “You draw men into you showing your peaceful side but when they are in your power you put them in trouble.
Questions
  1. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence in the rearrangement?
    1. C
    2. B
    3. E
    4. F
    5. A
  2. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence in the rearrangement?
    1. A
    2. D
    3. B
    4. C
    5. E
  3. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence in the rearrangement?
    1. D
    2. A
    3. C
    4. B
    5. F
  4. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence in the rearrangement?
    1. A
    2. B
    3. D
    4. C
    5. F
  5. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence in the rearrangement?
    1. A
    2. E
    3. D
    4. B
    5. F
[[ Sentence Correction]]
Do not look for errors in spelling and punctuation. When you find any error in a sentence, mark the incorrect part. If there is no error, mark (5).
  1. For a poor man (1)/ even five rupees (2)/ is (3)/ a big sum. (4)/No error (5)
  2. Science compries (1)/ of many (2)/ branches for (3)/ learning. (4) /No error (5)
  3. I shall avail (1)/ of this opportunity (2)/ to meet (3)/ you there. (4) /No error (5)
  4. I asked him (1)/ whether (2)/ he has got (3)/ admission in the college. (4) /No error (5)
  5. Walk slowly(1)/lest (2)/ you may fall (3)/ in the ditch. (4)/ No error(5)
  6. Unless he (1)/ does not confess his fault (2)/ he will not be (3)/ included in the team. (4)/ No error (5)
  7. By this time (1)/ next years (2)/ I had completed (3)/ my university degree. (4)/ No error (5)
  8. He is serving (1)/ under me (2)/ for the last (3)/ several years. (4)/ No error (5)
  9. No man (1)/ on the Earth (2)/ is (3)/ immortal (4)/ No error (5)
  10. Hardly (1)/ we had reached (2)/ the platform (3)/ when the train started. (4)/ No error (5)
  11. Everyone (1)/ of you (2)/ are required to do the (3) writing work in the classroom.(4)/ No error(
  12. John totally (1)/ disapproved with (2)/ his friend’s behaviour (3)/ in the party. (4)/ No error (5)
  13. He walked (1)/ so fast (2)/ as he (3)/ fainted.(4)/ error (5)
  14. Having complete his work (1)/ he (2)/ went home(3)/ to take rest. (4)/ No error (5)
  15. These kind of shoes (1)/ seem to be expensive(2)/ but they are relatively (3)/ easy to care for(4)/ No error (5)
[[Fill in the Blanks ]]
Read the following passage carefully and fill in the numbered blanks by choosing appropriate words from the choice given at the end of the passage.
Day by day, her influence and dignity _1_. First of all, she received the title of Noor Mahal, ‘Light of the Harem’, but was afterwards distinguished _2_ that of Noor Jahan Begam, ‘Light of the World’. All her relations and connections were raised to honour and wealth. No grant of lands was conferred upon _3_ except under her seal. In addition to giving her the titles that other kings bestowed, the Emperor granted Noor Jahan the rights _4_ sovereignty and government. Sometimes, she would sit in the balcony of her place, while the nobles would present themselves and listen to her dictates, _5_ coin was struck in her name, with the superscription: “By order of the Jehangir, gold has a hundred splendours added to it by receiving the impression of the name of Noor Jahan, the Queen Begam.” On all farmans also receiving _6_ imperial signature, name of Noor Jahan, the Queen Begam was jointly attached. At last, her authority reached such a pass that the king was such only in name, repeatedly, he gave out _7_ he had bestowed the sovereignty on Noor Jahan Begam and would say, “I require nothing beyond a sir of wine and half a sir of meat”. It is impossible to describe the beauty _8_ wisdom of the queen. In any matter that was presented to her if a difficulty arose, she _9_ solved it. Whoever threw himself upon her protection was preserved from tyranny and oppression; and if ever she learnt that any orphan girl was destitute and friendless, she would bring _10_ her marriage, and give for a wedding portion. It is probable that during her reign, not less than 500 orphan girls were thus married and portioned.
Answer 
1(1) enhanced (2) increased (3) heightened (4) magnified (5) None of these
2(1) by (2) for (3) of (4) in (5) None of these
3(1) any (2)anyone (3) any one (4)no one (5) None of these
4(1) to (2)for (3) beside (4)of (5) None of these
5(1) a (2)the (3) an (4)No word needed (5) None of these
6(1) the (2)an (3) of (4)No word needed (5) None of these
7(1) what (2)which (3) that (4)No word needed (5) None of these
8(1) and (2)as well as (3) also (4)as (5) None of these
9(1) at once (2)immediately (3) soon (4)quickly (5) None of these
10(1) off (2)out (3) in (4)about (5) None of these
[[ 6 Questions on Synonym and Antonym ]]
give synonymgive antonym
  1. Mystical
    1. Suspicious
    2. Crucial
    3. Ethnic
    4. Endangered
    5. None of these
  2. Melancholy
    1. Responsibility
    2. Improvement
    3. Doldrum
    4. Unity
    5. None of these
  3. Vastness
    1. Optimist
    2. Expanded
    3. Bulwark
    4. Prediction
    5. None of these
  1. Willingness
    1. Restlessness
    2. Collectively
    3. Argumentative
    4. Halfheartness
    5. None of these
  2. Solitude
    1. Ordinance
    2. Society
    3. Bitterness
    4. Clamity
    5. None of these
  3. Splendorous
    1. Magnificent
    2. Awesomeness
    3. Ordinariness
    4. Amazed
    5. None of these
[[Word Substitution]]
In the following questions, out of the five alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences.
  1. An apartment building in which each apartment is owned separately by the people living in it, but also containing shared areas.
    1. Condominium
    2. Multiplex
    3. Duplex
    4. Caravan
    5. None of these
  1. A group of three powerful people.
    1. Trio
    2. Tritium
    3. Trivet
    4. Triumvirate
    5. None of these
[[Spelling Correction Questions ]] 
In the following questions, five words are given in each questions, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find out the correctly spelt word.
Q1.(1) Conivance (2) Connivanse (3) Connivance (4) Conivence (5) Connevainse
Q2.(1) Maintennance  (2)Manteinance (3) Maintenance (4)Mentenance  (5) Montainc
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IBPS CWE Specialist Officers General English Questions 2012

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General English Aptitude is an important part of the IBPS CWE for Specialist Officers exxamination. This section for General English has to be faced by all candidates appearing for the exam for any specialist officer post. following is the Questions for IBPS CWE for Specialist Officers 2012 General Emglish section. Read carefully to get an idea of pattern of questions asked in General English section. All the best.
-- IBPS CWE Specialist Officers General English Questions 2012 --
[[15 Questions on Reading Comprehension ]]
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
In India, innovation is emerging as one of the most important rubrics in the discourse on how to bring about greater and more consistent economic and social development. One observes steadily growing investments in R & D across the country, the setting up of national and state innovation bodies, as well as the introduction of government-sponsored innovation funds. There have also been several conferences and debates on innovation and how to best promote and accomplish it in India, and a number of articles on the subject, written for newspapers and magazines, as well as more informal platforms like online forums and blogs.
Academic engagement and Indian authorship on the subject have also exploded in the last five years. Despite widespread agreement on the importance of innovation in India, there are wide gulfs between different conceptions of innovation and the path India should take towards securing benefits through investments in innovation.
Many Indian conversations around innovation begin by talking about jugaad, that uniquely Indian approach to a temporary fix when something complex, like an automobile or a steam engine stops working. However, many observers have pointed out that while jugaad is certainly innovative, it is a response to the lack of an innovation culture – more a survival or coping mechanism at a time of need than a systematic methodology to effectively address a wide-ranging, complex set of problems.
Another specifically Indian approach to innovation that has entered into wide currency of late is so-called `frugal innovation,’ deemed by many to be the most appropriate for the Indian context. In its midterm assessment of the 11th five-year plan, the Planning Commission stressed the need for innovation in India in order to accelerate its growth and to make growth more inclusive as well as environmentally sustainable. The document went on to say that India needs more frugal innovation that produces more frugal cost products and services that are affordable by people at low levels of incomes withoutcompromising the safety, efficiency and utility of the products. The country also needs processes of innovation that are frugal in the resources required to produce the innovations. The products and processes must also have frugal impact on the Earth’s resources.
Two people formulated a similar theory called the More-from-Less-for-More (MLM theory of innovation) theory of Innovation, which advocates a focus on innovations that allow for more production using fewer resources but benefit more people. Under this rubric come products that are more affordable versions of existing technologies. While both frugal innovation and the MLM theory are certainly valuable in terms of bringing affordable products and services to a greater number of people and may even be considered a necessary first step on India’s innovation path, they barely graze the surface of what innovation can accomplish. That is, innovation is capable of bringing about complete paradigm-shifts and redefining the way we perceive and interact with the world.
Take the cell phone, for example : it revolutionized communication in a previouslyinconceivable way, provided consumers with a product of unprecedented value and created an entirely new market. The cell phone was a result of years of directed, intentional innovation efforts and large investments, and would not have ever been created if the people responsible simply set out to make the existing telephone cheaper and more accessible to all.
While jugaad and frugal innovation may be indicative of the Indian potential for innovativeness, this potential is not utilised or given opportunity to flourish due to the lack of an enabling culture.
India’s many diverse and complex needs can be met only through systematic innovation and major shifts have to first take place in our educational institutions, government policies and commercial firms in order for such an innovation-enabling culture to come about.
The one thing that India’s innovation theorists have not said is that the absence of a culture of innovation is intrinsically linked to many of the most intractable problems facing India as a nation. These include poor delivery of government services, inadequate systems of personal identification and the absence of widely available financial services for rural poor, health and sanitation failures. This list can go on. Cumulatively, the inability of India as a nation, society and economy to adequately provide for its own population no longer reflects a failure of implementation, but rather of a failure of innovation, for there are not immediately-available off-the-shelf solutions that would make it possible for these grand challenges facing India to be redressed. Rather, we need to look at these intractable problems from the more sophisticated and empowering lens of innovation, for them to begin to be solved.
Passage based Questions:
  1. Which of the following best describes the MLM theory of innovation?
    1. Maximise output by using least number of resources and benefiting a small number of people
    2. Maximise resource utilisation and cost thereby benefit maximum number of people
    3. Minimise output and resource utilisation, yet benefit the maximum number of people
    4. Benefit most number of people through least usage of resources and maximum output
    5. Benefit most number of people through maximum usage of resources and minimising cost
  2. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage?
    1. Innovation At Its Best
    2. India And The Elixir Called Innovation
    3. Innovation Around The World vis-a-vis India And Other Neighbouring Countries
    4. Worldwide Developments In Innovation
    5. Innovation – The History
  3. What tone is the author employing in the entire passage to get his message across?
    1. Pessimistic
    2. Sarcastic
    3. Urgent
    4. Informative
    5. Dubious
  4. Why, according to the author, is India unable to adequately provide for its people?
    1. Failure to implement schemes and initiatives meant for the Indian populace
    2. Absence of regulatory authorities to oversee the implementation process
    3. Failure to innovate in order to find solutions
    4. Lack of governmental schemes and initiatives to redress the challenges faced by India
    5. Hesitance of the Indian people in trying out different schemes provided by the Government for upliftment
  5. Why, according to some people, is `jugaad’ not the answer to India’s problems?
    1. Many a times this methodology backfires leading to further complications
    2. Vugaad’ provides only cheap solutions to all problems
    3. It is reactive and not a proactive and organized method of finding solutions to problems
    4. It can provide solutions to only simple problems and not complex ones
    5. None of the above
  6. What does the author mean by ‘frugal impact on the Earth’s resources’ as given in the passage?
    1. The damage to the environment should be assessable
    2. More consumption of natural resources as compared to manmade ones
    3. Minimum impact on the environment in terms of pollution
    4. The impact on the environment should be such that it is reversible
    5. Minimum usage of Earth’s natural resources
Q7.Which of the following depict/s the growing importance of innovation in India?
  1. Increased investment in research.
  2. Initiation of Govt. backed funds for innovation.
  3. Increase in number of conferences arranged and articles written on innovation.
Answer choice
  1. Only A and B
  2. Only B and C
  3. Only B
  4. only C
  5. All of these
Q8. Which of the following is/are true about the cell phone?
  1. The innovation of the cell phone required investment of huge capital.
  2. The cell phone, when invented was meant to be affordable to all.
  3. The cell phone was made available to the public in a very short time from its ideation.
Answer 
  1. only A
  2. only A and B
  3. only B and C
  4. only B
  5. All of them

7 Questions on Passage based Vocabulary 

give synonymsgive antonyms
  1. REDRESSED
    1. addressed
    2. equalised
    3. restored
    4. redone
    5. rearranged
  2. CURRENCY
    1. notes
    2. usage
    3. money
    4. cash
    5. value
  3. INTRINSICALLY
    1. internally
    2. whole-heartedly
    3. fundamentally
    4. virtually
    5. unavoidably
  4. INDICATIVE
    1. causative
    2. forthcoming
    3. verbal
    4. abstract
    5. suggestive
  5. COMPROMISING
    1. co-operating with
    2. reducing the quality
    3. hampering the progress
    4. conciliating in order to
    5. adjusting for the better
  1. LACK (give opposite)
    1. presence
    2. sufficiency
    3. charisma
    4. adequacy
    5. dearth
  2. INCONCEIVABLE (give opposite)
    1. visible
    2. truthful
    3. incredible
    4. apparent
    5. complex

[[ 5 Questions on Arrangement of Sentences Correctly ]]
Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
  1. It is no wonder that a majority of these excluded and low-achievers come from the most deprived sections of society.
  2. They are precisely those who are supposed to be empowered through education.
  3. With heightened political consciousness about the plight of these to-be-empowered people, never in the history of India has the demand for inclusive education been as fervent as today.
  4. They either never enroll or they drop out of schools at different stages during these eight years.
  5. Of the nearly 200 million children in the age grout between 6 and 14 years, more than half do not complete eight years of elementary education.
  6. Of those who do complete eight years of schooling, the achievement levels of a large percentage, in language and mathematics, is unacceptably low.
Questions
  1. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
    1. A
    2. B
    3. C
    4. D
    5. F
  2. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
    1. A
    2. B
    3. C
    4. D
    5. E
  3. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
    1. F
    2. E
    3. D
    4. C
    5. B
  4. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
    1. A
    2. B
    3. C
    4. D
    5. E
  5. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
    1. F
    2. E
    3. D
    4. B
    5. A
[[15 Questions on Sentence Correction ]]
Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
  1. The third season of (1)/ the popular television show will ends (2)/ on a grand note with (3)/ celebrities dancing and having fun. (4)/ No error (5)
  2. The website, which does not (1)/ accept advertisements and is funded (2)/ entirely by donations, describes itself (3)/ as the fifth most popular website on the planet. (4)/ No error(5)
  3. As sharing crime statistics for (1)/ the year 2011, the Commissioner admitted that (2)/ there had been an undue delay in (3)/ the setting up of an anti-narcotics cell. (4)/ No error (5)
  4. The Moon may be the best place (1)/ to look for aliens as their (2)/ footprints on their surface would (3)/ last far longer than radio signals. (4)/ No error (5)
  5. The judge advised the government to (1)/ have metered autorickshaws across the state while (2)/ recounting his personal experience where an autorickshaw driver (3)/ made him to wait and also demanded 100. (4)/ No error (5)
  6. The Company aims (1)/ to nearly double (2)/ its revenues on the back (3)/ of a strongest product pipeline. (4)/ No error (5)
  7. The woman that had (1)/ kidnapped a child has now (2)/ been apprehended and is being (3)/ held in the city’s jail. (4)/ No error (5)
  8. Rose growers in (1)/ the city are waking up (2)/ to the benefits (3)/ of collective action. (4)/ No error (5)
  9. The Minister will have (1)/ a tough task on his hands (2)/ where three different recommendations (3)/ for this year’s rate reach his desk. (4)/ No error (5)
  10. The current economic scenario (1)/ could possibly undo (2)/ the growth that followed (3)/ the economic liberalisation of 1991. (4)/ No error (5)
  11. In a first of its kind study, (1)/ a team of scientists have tried to (2)/ ‘grow’ new stem cells in (3)/ the ear that get damage with age. (4)/ No error (5)
  12. If successful, the research could (1)/ pave the way towards (2)/ the prevention in untimely deaths (3)/ due to fatal illnesses. (4)/ No error (5)
  13. The Ministry has directed Bank (1)/ to do away with their (2)/ separate promotion policies, a move (3)/ strongly opposed by the officers’s unions. (4)/ No error (5)
  14. After a complaint was filed, (1)/ police teams was given the photograph (2)/ of the accused from the CCTV footage (3)/ recorded at the hotel. (4)/ No error (5)
  15. Activists opposing the rail project said (1)/ that the eleven new flyovers to be built (2)/ would practically ring (3)/ the death knell for the city. (4)/ No error (5)
[[10 Questions : Fill in the Blanks from paragraph]]
In the following passage there are numbered blanks. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
_1_ over the world, rights related to information technology that are already legally recognized are daily being violated, _2_ in the name of economic advancement, political stability or for personal greed and interests. Violations of these rights have _3_ new problems in human social systems, such as the digital divide, cybercrime, digital security and privacy concerns, all of which have _4_ people’s lives either directly or indirectly.
It is important that countries come up with the guidelines for action to _5_ the incidences of malicious attacks on the confidentiality, integrity and availability of electronic data and systems, computer related crimes, content related offenses and violations of intellectual property rights. _6_ threats to critical infrastructure and national interests arising from the use of the internet for criminal and terrorist activities are of growing _7_. The harm incurred to businesses, governments and individuals in those countries in which the internet is used _8_, is gaining in _9_ and importance, which in other countries, cybercrime threatens the application of information and communication technology for government services, healthcare, trade and banking. As users start losing _10_ in online transactions and business, the opportunity costs may become substantial.
Answer
MCQ#Choices
1(1) Entire (2) Lot (3) Great  (4) All (5) Much
2(1) scarcely (2) whether (3) and (4) for (5) hardly
3(1) created (2) bent (3) pressured (4) risen (5) stopped
4(1) distanced (2) affected (3) exaggerated (4) advanced (5) cropped
5(1) engage (2) conflict (3) war (4) combat (5) struggle
6(1) But (2) More (3) Addition (4) Beside (5) Further
7(1) concern (2) nature (3) pattern (4) important (5) matter
8(1) really (2) figuratively (3) widely (4) never (5) tandem
9(1) fear (2) days (3) positivity (4) width (5) scope
10(1) tracks (2) measure (3)confidence (4) mind (5) grip
[[5 Questions Based on Phrases and Idioms]]
In each of the following sentences, an idiomatic expression or a proverb is highlighted. Select the alternative which best describes its use in the sentence.
  1. Facts spoke louder than words at the Company meeting where the Director tried to paint a rosy picture of the Company’s financial health.
    1. Too many facts related to the good financial health of the Company were presented during the meeting
    2. The Company was not doing well financially despite the Director saying otherwise
    3. The Director was very loud while presenting the facts about the Company’s financial health during the meeting
    4. The facts stated in the meeting supported the Director’s claims of good financial health of the Company
    5. The Company was doing exceptionally well financially, despite the Director saying otherwise
  2. By initiating the fight with Sakshi in office, Kajal had killed the goose that lay the golden egg.
    1. By initiating the fight with Sakshi in office, Kajal had left her speechless
    2. Kajal had ruined her chances of success by picking a fight with Sakshi in office
    3. Kajal had exacted her revenge by picking a fight with Sakshi in office
    4. Kajal had hurt Sakshi by picking a fight with her in office
    5. By initiating the fight with Sakshi in office, Kajal had missed getting the golden egg
  3. I let the chips fall where they may and do not worry too much about what I want to do next.
    1. I take calculated risks
    2. I let others do what they want and do not interfere
    3. I am clumsy
    4. I do not try to control my destiny
    5. I prefer chaos to calm
  4. After trying hard to convince Narendra to change his ways, Raman realised that a leopard cannot change its spots.
    1. Raman realised that Narendra would never change his ways
    2. Raman realised that Narendra was helpless
    3. Raman realised that he was not good at convincing others
    4. Raman realised that Narendra would change his ways soon
    5. Raman realised that someone else was forcing Narendra to act in a certain way
  5. Before starting work on our new project, our mentor told us to not count our chickens before they hatched.
    1. Our mentor warned us against being over-confident about achieving success
    2. Our mentor asked us to meticulously count the chicken first and then the eggs
    3. Our mentor warned us against being over enthusiastic in implementing the project
    4. Our mentor warned us about all the challenges that lay ahead of us
    5. Our mentor informed us about the prizes that we would get on succeeding

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IBPS CWE Specialist Officers(Law) 2013 Professional Knowledge Question Paper

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As we have posted in previous post, now this one is the question paper for IBPS CWE for Specialist Officers(Law) held in 2013.
--IBPS CWE Specialist Officers(Law) 2012 Questions--
  1. A cheque may be drawn for a maximum period of
    1. three months
    2. six months
    3. one year
    4. forever
    5. None of these
  2. Guarantee is defined
    1. as a contract
    2. to perform the promise or discharge the liability
    3. of a third person in care of his default
    4. All of the above
    5. None of the above
  3. Which of the following committees also recommended the set up of Debt Recovery Tribunals?
    1. Committee on Financial sector reforms
    2. Committee on custom service
    3. Committee on RRBs
    4. All of the above
    5. None of the above
  4. Partnership firm is
    1. the relation between persons
    2. who have agreed to share their of a business
    3. business may be carried on by all or any of them
    4. All of the above
    5. None of the above
  5. As per explanation given in sub clause of 2 (b) of section 35 of Banking Regulation Act. inspection of branches of Indian Banks situated abroad is to be carried out by
    1. Comptroller and Auditor General
    2. Reserve Bank of India
    3. World Bank
    4. Exim Bank
    5. Dept. to Company Affairs
  6. A fraud involving a fake demand draft has taken place in X branch of Canara Bank which has paid this DD, purportedly issued by Y branch. Z branch of Axis Bank had presented this DD in clearing. Which branch will report this fraud
    1. X
    2. Y
    3. Z
    4. All of these
    5. None of these
  7. Borrower has raised an objection to a notice received from the Bank for taking possession of securities under SARFAESI Act.
    1. Bank must justify the possession within 15 days
    2. Bank should send another notice of 30 days
    3. Bank should approach DRT within 7 days
    4. All of the above
    5. None of the above
  8. A cheque is presented for payment through clearing house but due to certain reasons, it is returned unpaid. The returning memo is enclosed to comply with
    1. Negotiable Instruments Act
    2. RBI Act
    3. Banking Regulations Act
    4. It is a paractice
    5. RBI clearing house rules
  9. Evidence means
    1. all statements presented before a court by way witnesses
    2. it is in relation to a matter of fact under inquiry
    3. such statements are called oral evidence
    4. All of the above
    5. None of the above
  10. Which of the following is not a duty of pawner?
    1. To compensate pawnee for extra ordinary expenses
    2. Not to sue pawnee for any default
    3. To meet his obligation on stipulated date
    4. To comply with the terms and conditions of contract
    5. None of the above
  11. What period is available as limitation in case of mortgage?
    1. 3 years from date of mortgage
    2. 12 years from date of mortgage
    3. 12 years from the date when the mortgage money has become due
    4. 12 years from date of loan
    5. 12 years from date of loan or date or mortgage whichever lower
  12. The maximum number of directors in public limited company can be
    1. 8
    2. 10
    3. 12
    4. 15
    5. No limit, but if the number goes beyond 12, Govt. Permission is required
  13. For which among the following instruments, the amount of stamp duty can be different in different states?
    1. Promissory note
    2. Bill of exchange
    3. Money receipt
    4. Guarantee deed
    5. All of these
  14. Clean note policy, has been framed by RBI under the authority vested in it by
    1. RBI Act Section 45
    2. RBI Act Section 35
    3. Banking Regulation Act Section 45
    4. Banking Regulation Act Section 35A
    5. Companies Act Section 125
  15. The endorsement on a cheque is valid for a period of
    1. six months from the date of endorsment
    2. six months from the date of cheque
    3. six months from the date of delivery
    4. All of the above
    5. None of the above
  16. Universal Bank decides to perfer an appeal against the decision of Debt Recovery Tribunal. What is the time period during which this appeal could be field DRAT ?
    1. Within 15 days of the order
    2. Within 30 days of the order passed by DRT
    3. Within 30 days of receipt of the order
    4. Within 15 days of the order passed by the President of DRT
    5. Within 45 days of the receipt of order by the bank
  17. 217.The limitation available to the bank for execution of degree is
    1. 3 years from the date of receipt of copy of decree
    2. 3 years from date of decree
    3. 12 years from date of receipt of copy of decree
    4. 12 years from date of decree
    5. None of the above
  18. Customer can make appeal against the award of Ombudsman to the Appellate Authority within
    1. 45 days of date of award
    2. 45 days of date of receipt of award
    3. 30 days of date of award
    4. 30 days of date of receipt of award
    5. None of the above
  19. Under SARFAESI Act, borrower is required to be given a notice of days by the bank, for taking possession of the security
    1. 30 days from date of notice
    2. 60 days from date of notice
    3. 30 days from date of receipt of notice by the borrower
    4. 60 days from date of receipt of notice by the borrower
    5. None of the above
  20. Under which provisions, the RBI has introduced the Banking Regulation Act, 1949?
    1. Section 33 of Banking Ombudsman Scheme
    2. RBI Act, 1934
    3. Consumer Protection Act, 1986
    4. All of the above
    5. None of the above
  21. A cheque is payable on
    1. demand
    2. 24 hours after presentation
    3. happening of certain event
    4. a fixed future date
    5. None of the above
  22. Public seeking information under section 6 (1) of the Right to Information Act (RIA) should submit the application accompanied by a fee of
    1. Rs.1
    2. 10
    3. 100
    4. No fees prescribed
    5. None of these
  23. Which of the following type of charge is extended by bank while financing against LIC policy?
    1. Pledge
    2. Hypothecation
    3. Mortgage
    4. Assignment
    5. None of these
  24. Any implied warranty may be varied by
    1. express agreement
    2. course of dealing between parties
    3. if usage is such as to bind parties to the contract
    4. Any of the above
    5. None of the above
  25. A quasi contract is a contract that exists by
    1. order of a court
    2. agreement of the parties
    3. Either (1) or (2)
    4. (1) and (2)
    5. None of the above
  1. Can a minor become a partner?
    1. Yes (a minor become a partner)
    2. No (Reason: a minor can be admitted to the benefits of a partnership. But he cannot become a partner also documents will be signed by the guardian on minor’s behalf).
    3. (1) and (2)
    4. Either (1) or (2)
    5. None of the above
  2. Limitation period for execution of a decree is
    1. 12 years from the date it was decreed
    2. 3 years from the date of the decree
    3. 6 years from the date of the decree
    4. 5 years from the date of the decree
    5. None of the above
  3. Section 131 and NI Act provides statutory protection to a collecting banker if
    1. the cheque is crossed
    2. the cheque is collected for a customer
    3. the cheque is collected in good faith and without negligence
    4. All of the above
    5. None of the above
  4. What is meant by document of title to goods?
    1. It entities and enable its rightful holder to deal with the goods represented by it as an owner
    2. It is a proof of ownership of goods
    3. It confers a right on the possessor to transfer the goods to another person
    4. All of the above
    5. None of the above
  5. A surety has rights against
    1. the creditor
    2. the principal debtor
    3. the co-sureties
    4. All of these
    5. None of these
  6. What is the time limit for disposing an appeal by Appellate Authority?
    1. Within 2 months
    2. Within 3 months
    3. Within 6 months
    4. No such limit
    5. All of the above
  7. A Proclaimed person whose property has been attached can claim the property or the sale proceeds,on appearance
    1. within 6 months of attachment
    2. within 2 years of attachment
    3. within 3 years of attachment
    4. within 1 year of attachment
    5. None of the above
  8. A boy over 11 years but below 12 years of a pow up knife and proceeding towards with a gesture saying that he would cut him into pieces actually stabs him to death.
    1. The boy will not be guilty, as a child under 12 years of age cannot be guilty of an offence
    2. The boy will be guilty because he had attained maturity of understanding to judge the nature and consequence of his conduct of mind and the act concurred in this case
    3. The boy will not be guilty of murder
    4. The boy will not be guilty of murder as he had not attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature and consequence of his conduct
    5. None of the above
  9. On which date the Amendments to the IPC by the criminal law (Amendment) Act, 2005 came into force
    1. 16th April, 2006
    2. 11th January,2006
    3. 23rd January, 2006
    4. 21st June, 2006
    5. None of these
  10. A contract with or by a minor is a
    1. valid contract
    2. void contract
    3. voidable contract
    4. voidable at the option of either party
    5. None of the above
  11. A contract can be discharged
    1. by performance of the contract
    2. by frustration of the contract
    3. (1) and (2)
    4. Neither (1) nor (2)
    5. None of the above
  12. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ agreed to marry each other on a certain date and before that ‘X’ goes mad. ‘Y’ cancer contract and sued for damager.
    1. No cause of action arises till the date of marriage.
    2. On account of X’s going mad, the contract frustrated and void. Y has no right to sue for damages.
    3. The contract itself is void
    4. Y is guilty of breach of contract
    5. None of the above
  13. Liability of the surety is
    1. conditional on default
    2. independent of default
    3. can be conditional and can be independent
    4. Either (1) or (2)
    5. None of the above
  14. ‘Bailee’ is a person
    1. who delivers the goods
    2. to whom the goods are delivered
    3. through whom the goods are delivered
    4. who carries the goods
    5. None of the above
  15. An action for indemnity against a partner can be brought by
    1. the firm only
    2. an individual partner
    3. Either (1) or (2)
    4. Neither (1) nor (2)
    5. None of these
  16. An act done by a partner on behalf on the firm beyond the implied authority
    1. can be ratified expressly
    2. can be ratified impliedly by conduct
    3. Either (1) or (2)
    4. cannot be ratified
    5. None of the above
  17. The liability by holding out can be incurred by
    1. a minor
    2. a major
    3. Either (1) or (2)
    4. (1) and (2)
    5. None of these
  18. Once a minor, who has been admitted for benefits of the partnership severs his connection with that firm the minor has right to sua
    1. for accounts and his share
    2. for dissolution of the firm
    3. (1) and (2)
    4. Neither (1) nor (2)
    5. None of the above
  19. The status of a partner who has been expelled is that of
    1. an existing dormant partner
    2. an insolvent partner
    3. a retired partner
    4. Either (1) or (3)
    5. None of the above
  20. The dissolution by notice as described under section 43 of the Indian partnership Act, 1932 is applicable where the partnership is
    1. at will
    2. for a fixed term
    3. for a specific adventure
    4. All of these
    5. None of these
  21. The parties to the arbitration agreement shall appoint arbitrator within
    1. 30 days
    2. 60 days
    3. 40 days
    4. 90 days
    5. None of these
  22. The mandate of an arbitrator shall terminate
    1. when he withdraws from his office for any reason
    2. when he become de jure or de facto unable to act without undue delay
    3. when the parties have agreed to terminate arbitrator’s authority
    4. All of the above
    5. None of the above
  23. Which is incorrect statement?
    1. The arbitral tribunal is bound by code of civil procedure, 1908
    2. The arbitral tribunal is bound by Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
    3. (1) and (2)
    4. All of the above
    5. None of the above
  24. Admissions
    1. must be in writing
    2. must be oral
    3. Either oral or in writing
    4. Only in writing and not oral
    5. None of these
  25. Oral evidence under section 60 of Evidence Act may be
    1. direct only
    2. hearsay
    3. (1) and (2)
    4. Either (1) or (2)
    5. None of these

Also Read : IBPS CWE Specialist Officers(Law) 2012 Question Paper>>
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IBPS CWE Specialist Officer(Law) Profesional Knowledge Question Paper 2012

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IBPS CWE for Specialist Officer(Law Officer) examination has five sections viz, Reasoning, English, Maths, (GK+Banking) and Professional knowledge. The Professional Knowledge part contains 50 questions. Following are the questions from IBPS CWE Specialist Officers 2012 for Law Officers. 50 MCQs of Professional Knowledge are included. In next post, we will provide you the questions of 2013 IBPS CWE for Specialist Officers.
--IBPS CWE Specialist Officers 2012 Professional Knowledge(LAW)--
  1. Under outsourcing of banking services, the customer is to be allowed a time period of _ for lodging complaint with the Ombudsman, if the customer does not get satisfactory response from the bank:
    1. 10 days
    2. 15 days
    3. 30 days
    4. 60 days
    5. 75 days
  2. “Escrow” is a term used to denote:
    1. negotiability of the instrument
    2. an instrument incomplete in respect of date
    3. an instrument without consideration
    4. conditional delivery of the instrument
    5. None of these
  3. What is the maximum amount of fee payable for filing a Recovery case with the Debt Recovery Tribunal?
    1. Rs.1 lakh
    2. Rs.1,20,000.
    3. Rs.1,50,000.
    4. 12% of the debit amount.
    5. None of these.
  4. Which of the following statements, is correct regarding securitization of Asset?
    1. Bank can take possession of Asset and sale itself or it can hand over to Re-construction Company.
    2. Securitised Company can act as secured creditor.
    3. Securitised Company gets all the Right of secured creditor.
    4. All of the above.
    5. None of these.
  5. The unfair Trade Practice includes:
    1. Quality and Quantity
    2. Potency and Purity
    3. Standard and price of goods and services.
    4. All of the above.
    5. None of these.
  6. Which of the following complaints can be lodged with the Banking Ombudsman regarding loans?
    1. Non-charging of interest as per RBI guidelines.
    2. Delay in disposal of loan applications beyond prescribed time limit of RBI.
    3. Not granting the loans as per guidelines.
    4. All of the above.
    5. None of these.
  7. The difference between Sale and Bailment is:
    1. Ownership is transferred to Buyer in the sale.
    2. Buyer has no obligation to return the goods.
    3. In the contract of Bailment- both (1)and (2)are not applicable.
    4. both (1) and (2).
    5. None of these.
  8. Which of the following is not the essential of a contract?
    1. Transfer of ownership.
    2. Immediate delivery of the goods.
    3. The contract must satisfy essentials of a valid contract.
    4. Goods must be a movable property.
    5. None of these.
  9. A private company is which:
    1. Restricts the right to transfer its shares.
    2. Limits the number of members to 50.
    3. Restricts the subscription of shares or debentures from the public.
    4. All of the above
    5. None of these.
  10. Which of the following are the duties of a Bailor?
    1. To disclose all the faults and defects in the goods Bailed.
    2. Bailor must compensate the loss to Bailee.
    3. Duty of the Bailor is to make aware the Bailee all the risk factors associated with the goods.
    4. All of the above.
    5. None of these.
  11. The essentials of a valid contract are:
    1. There should be an offer.
    2. Offer must be accepted.
    3. The parties to the consent must have free consent.
    4. All of the above.
    5. None of these.
  12. When a guaranteed loan is repaid by the guarantor the:
    1. guarantor steps in shoes of the bank
    2. securities in possession of creditors will be handed over to him
    3. guarantor is not entitled to the securities
    4. both (1) and (2)
    5. None of these
  13. A minor is competent to endorse an instrument:
    1. Subject to approval of the guardian
    2. without incurring any liability
    3. with the consent of all parties
    4. the statement is not true
    5. None of these
  14. Which of the following statement is correct regarding Bankers Book Evidence Act?
    1. No officer of a Bank can be compelled to produce any Bankers Books unless it is specially ordered by the court.
    2. The above position (1) applies only when Bank is not a party to the case.
    3. An investigating Police officer can compel a Bank officer to produce the Books without court order.
    4. All of the above
    5. None of these
  15. Where is Appellate Tribunal is located?
    1. Thiruvanthpuram
    2. Mumbai
    3. Each State Head Quarter
    4. All of these
    5. None of these
  16. What are the Rights available to a secured creditor?
    1. To sell the Assets.
    2. File application with DRT for recovery of full or remaining dues.
    3. To proceed against the guarantor.
    4. All of the above
    5. None of these
  17. Which of the following Rights of a consumer are protected under consumer protection Act,1986?
    1. The Right to be protected against making of goods which are hazardous of life and property.
    2. The Right against unfair trade practices.
    3. The Right to be assured access to a variety of goods and services at competitive prices.
    4. All of the above
    5. None of these
  18. The complaints which can be lodged with the Banking Ombudsman are:
    1. Delay in providing various services.
    2. Complaints regarding exporters.
    3. Delay in remittance to NRI.
    4. All of the above.
    5. None of these.
  19. Which of the following loan accounts can be referred to Lok Adalat?
    1. All NPA accounts.
    2. Both suit filed and non-suit filed accounts.
    3. Where liability does not exceed Rs.20 lacs.
    4. All of the above.
    5. None of these.
  20. Which of the following statements is correct?
    1. When neither the Bailor nor the Bailee is entitled to any remuneration is called gratitous Bailment.
    2. Where either the Bailee or the Bailor is entitled to remuneration is called non-gratitous Bailment.
    3. Motor car let out for hire is a contract of non-gratitous Bailment.
    4. All of the above.
    5. None of these.
  21. The essential elements of sale are:
    1. There should be a minimum of two parties.
    2. The subject matter of a contract of sale must be goods.
    3. The consideration of sale must be in money.
    4. All of the above.
    5. None of these.
  22. Which of the following is not an advantage of a company?
    1. In case of liquidation shareholders do not get priority in payment.
    2. Transfer of company’s shares provides liquidity.
    3. Members share the profits by the way of dividend.
    4. Company affords better borrowing facilities.
    5. None of these.
  23. Who can be a partner of a firm?
    1. Any person who is competent to contract.
    2. Any adult individual who is of sound mind.
    3. HUF represented by “Karta”.
    4. All of the above.
    5. None of these.
  24. The special category of clients includes:
    1. Politically exposed persons.
    2. Companies offering foreign exchange.
    3. Clients in high risk countries.
    4. All of the above.
    5. None of these.
  25. Which of the following is correct regarding obtaining of information?
    1. A person seeking information has to give in writing.
    2. PIO has to provide information within 30 days.
    3. If information is relating to life or liberty of a person,it will be provided within 48 hours.
    4. All of the above.
    5. None of these.
  1. The word “verify” in relation to a digital signature signifies:
    1. The initial electronic record was affixed with the digital signature.
    2. It is retained in fact.
    3. Both (1) and (2).
    4. only (1)
    5. None of these.
  2. If one of the joint guarantors pays the dues:
    1. he may claim the respective shares from others
    2. he cannot claim anything from others as the liability is joint and
    3. he has to bear the loss himself
    4. All of the above
    5. None of these
  3. Bank XYZ Limited receives a letter of credit of EURO 20,000 in favour of M/s ABC Exports Pvt Ltd for exports to Germany. After verification of the genuineness of the credit.it is forwarded to the beneficiary through registered letter. Unfortunately,due to political strike, by the time the letter of credit is delivered,its validity period expires. The exporter threatens legal action against the bank:
    1. bank is liable as bank has not handed over the credit in time to the beneficiary.
    2. postal department is liable for the loss and exporter has to take up the matter with the postal department
    3. bank is not liable as it does not assume any liability for the consequences arising out of delay in transit due to actions beyond its control.
    4. bank could persuade the opening bank to extend the validity date so that it is not put to loss
    5. any of the above.
  4. Your branch has received a garnishee order in the name of your customer having saving bank account, with following transactions. Which among these is not subject matter of the garnishee order:
    1. an advice ready for dispatch to another branch after debit to the account in payment of cheque
    2. an advice received for a cheque which was sent in collection from another branch but not credited to the account so far
    3. a cheque sent in clearing,the amount of which has been credited to the account
    4. an amount of Rs.4000 relating to his wife’s account credited by mistake to the account of the customer
    5. all of the above
  5. If the ATM has not dispensed the cash but account has been debited, the dispute regarding such transactions is to be resolved by the banks within?
    1. one week
    2. 10 days
    3. 12 days
    4. 15 days
    5. None of these
  6. A cheque is presented for payment through clearing house but due to certain reasons,it is returned unpaid.The returning memo is enclosed to comply with:
    1. Negotiable Instruments Act
    2. RBI Act
    3. Banking Regulations Act
    4. It is a paractice
    5. RBI clearing House rules.
  7. A company has failed to file particulars of charge for a loan raised from bank and a period of 4 months have already lapsed:
    1. the change can be filed by the company any time by paying penalty
    2. the change can be filed by the company and bank together
    3. the charge can be filed with the permission of Company Law Board,by paying penalty
    4. None of these.
  8. For Term loan the period of limitation is three years from:
    1. Date of documents
    2. Date of default
    3. Date of sanction
    4. Due date of each instalment
    5. Date of default of each instalment
  9. In case the debt is acknowledged after the expiry of limitation period,the limitation period will be:
    1. Extended by another three years from this date
    2. Extended for another three years from date of expiry
    3. extended for 3 years
    4. Not be extended
    5. None of these
  10. Z is reported to have died.Some amount has been deposited by one of the debtors of Z in the bank account of Z.
    1. bank cannot credit the amount
    2. bank can credit the amount
    3. bank can credit the amount with the permission of the nominee or legal heirs.
    4. bank can credit the amount with the permission of court only
    5. None of these
  11. Charge created by a borrower in favour of a secured creditor on movable assets without possession,is known as_ as per provisions of _ Act.
    1. Lien,Indian Contract Act
    2. Assignment,SARFAESI Act
    3. Mortgage,Transfer of Property Act
    4. Hypothecation,SARFAESI Act.
    5. None of these.
  12. Mr.Abhay Lal informs the bank that he signed a cheque as Abhay instead of Abhay Lal,which are his usual signatures.Bank has paid the cheque but the customer claims refund of the amount:
    1. customer cannot seek refund as bank has made the payment as per his mandate
    2. customer can seek refund as the signatures do not tally
    3. customer can seek refund as bank is negligent
    4. the issue can be decided by a court,being a dispute
    5. None of these.
  13. Which of the following confers on the trustees,the power to obtain loan:
    1. Trust deed
    2. Trust deed writer
    3. Beneficiary
    4. Resolution from the trustees
    5. Commissioner of Charity
  14. Under which of the following categories,a contract of insurance is categorized?
    1. contract of agency
    2. contract of guarantee
    3. contract of indemnity
    4. contract of guarantee and indemnity
    5. an actionable claim
  15. A bank branch has received a mail transfer for credit to account of Mr.X who has expired.Which of the following would be the most appropriate option:
    1. the amount would be credited to the account if all particulars tally with the records
    2. the amount would be credited to the account if the legal heirs have no objection
    3. the amount would be credited to the account if survivors, nominees or legal heirs have authorised to do so
    4. the amount would not be credited to the account if survivirs,nominees or legal heirs have not given any authority
    5. 3 and 4 both
  16. Which of the following statements is not true with regard to a cheque:
    1. Maximum validity period is 6 months as per provisions of NI Act
    2. cheque written in different handwritings, different inks in different scripts can be paid
    3. where bearer and order both appear on a cheque,the cheque is payable to the bearer
    4. payment of a cheque with forged endorsement is a payment in due course by the paying bank
    5. a non-negotiable ctossed cheque cannot be transferred/endorsed
  17. Mr.X gave a power of a attorney to Y operations of X’s account on Jan 12,2011.Y signed three cheques of Rs.5000 each and dated the cheques as Jan 14,2011 Jan 06,2011 and Jan 31,2011.He however died on Jan 26,2011.The cheques are presented on Feb 12,2011 .Which of the following is not matched in this connection:
    1. cheque dated Jan 14,2011 shall be paid
    2. cheque dated Jan 06,2011 shall be paid
    3. cheque dated Jan 31,2011 shall be returned
    4. All of these
    5. None of these
  18. Under the Ombudsman Scheme for Banks effective from Jan 01,2006,the Ombudsman functions as:
    1. advisor for bank and customer
    2. court for banks and customer
    3. lok adalat for banks and customers
    4. arbitrator between banks and customers
    5. None of these.
  19. Which of the following crossing restricts further endorsements of a cheque and which one takes away the element of negotiation:
    1. general crossing and payee’s account crossing
    2. not-negotiable crossing and payee’s account crossing
    3. payee’s account crossing and not-negotiable crossing
    4. payee’s account crossing and special crossing
    5. not-negotiable crossing and special crossing
  20. Banks maintain secrecy of accounts of their customers as a result of which of the following:
    1. as per provisions of NI Act
    2. as per provisions of Banking Regulation Act
    3. as per contractual obligation under implied contract
    4. as per prevailing practices among banks
    5. as per provisions of RBI Act.
  21. Garnishi order has been received in the name of Mr.X who is associated with the following accounts. Which of these accounts shall be attached:
    1. Cash credit account of XYZ,a partnership firm, where limit is unavailed and X is a partner in the firm.
    2. An overdraft account in the name of “X”.
    3. An account of a Trust where he is a Trustee.
    4. An account styled as ownership of X
    5. None of the above
  22. Which of the following would be a ‘holder for value’:
    1. X,getting a gift cheque from Y
    2. Z,getting a cheque from A for sale of goods to A
    3. National Bank, purchasing a cheque from its customer K,under instant credit facility
    4. National Bank,receiving a cheque from its customer for collection
    5. All of the above
  23. What is the time period prescribed by RBI for preservation of records under Prevention of Money Laundering Act and what is the time period during which suspicious transaction report is to be sent within _ days on confirmation:
    1. 2 years,15 days
    2. 4 years,12 days
    3. 5 years,10 days
    4. 10 years,7 days
    5. 12 years,3 days
  24. As per FEMA 1999,foreign exchange means foreign currenct and include (a) all deposits (b) credits and balances payable in foreign currency (c) any drafts,travellers’ cheques,LCs and Bill of Exchange, payable in foreign currency. Which of the following is correct out of the above:
    1. a and b only
    2. a and c only
    3. b and c only
    4. a,b,c all
    5. None of these
  25. As per amendment to the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, effective from June 01,2009,which of the following is not required to furnish Suspicious Transaction Report to FDI India
    1. Banks
    2. Financial Institutions
    3. Authorised Persons
    4. None of the above
    5. All of these
Also Read : IBPS CWE Specialist Officers(Law) 2013 Question Paper>>
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