This is the Fully Solved Question paper of UGC NET examination on Computer Science and Applications Paper II, examination held on December 2007. We have a compilation of 10 years question paper of UGC NET Computer Science and Applications. You can browse through all solved UGC NET question papers visiting the links below.
1. A box
contains six red balls and four green balls. Four balls are selected
at random from the box. What is the probability that two of the
selected balls are red and two are green?
(A) 3/7
(B) 4/7
(C) 5/7
(D) 6/7
Ans: A
2. The
number of edges in a complete graph with ‘n’ vertices is equal
to:
(A) n(n-1)
(B) n(n-1)/2
(C) n2
(D) 2n-1
Ans: B
3. A context
free grammar is:
(A) type 0
(B) type 1
(C) type 2
(D) type 3
Ans: C
4. Let e:
B˄m→B˄n is a group code. The minimum distance of ‘e’ is equal
to:
(A) the maximum
weight of a non zero code word
(B) the minimum
weight of a non zero code word
(C) m
(D) n
Ans: B
5. Consider
a Moore Machine M whose digraph is:
Then L(M), the
language accepted by the machine M, is the set of all strings having:
(A) two or more
b’s (B) three or more b’s
(C) two or more
a’s (D) three or more a’s
Ans: A
6. A WFF
that is equivalent to the WFF x=>y is:
(A) y=>x
(B) ~y=>x
(C) ~y=>~x
(D) y=>~x
Ans: B
7.
Simplified form of Boolean expression xy+(~x)z+yz is:
(A) xy+(~x)z
(B) (~x)y+(~x)z
(C) (~x)y+xz
(D) xy+xz
Ans: A
8. In order
to build a MOD-18 counter, the minimum number of flip flops needed is
equal to:
(A) 18 (B) 9
(C) 5 (D) 4
Ans: C
9. The dual
of the switching function F=x+yz is given by:
(A) x+yz
(B) x(y+z)
(C) (~x)+(~y)(~z)
(D) (~x)((~y)+(~z))
Ans: B
10. Amongst the
logic families DTL, TTL, ECL and CMOS, the family with the least
power dissipation is:
(A) CMOS
(B) DTL
(C) TTL
(D) ECL
Ans: A
11. What
cannot replace ‘?’ in the following C code to print all odd
numbers less than 100?
for(i=1;?;i+2)
printf(“%d\n”,i);
(A) i≤100
(B) i≤101
(C) i<100
(D) i<101
Ans: B
12. Consider
the following linked list:
Which of the
following piece of code will insert the node pointed to by q at the
end of the list ?
(A) for (p=list;
p!=NULL; p=p→next);
p=q;
(B) for (p=list;
p!=NULL; p=p→next);
p→next=q;
(C) for (p=list;
p→next !=NULL; p=p→next);
p=q;
(D) for (p=list;
p→next !=NULL; p=p→next);
p→next=q;
Ans: D
13. Which of
the following is a valid C code to print character ‘A’ to ‘C’
?
(A) x=’A’;
switch(x)
{case ‘A’=printf
(“%d\n”, x);
....
case ‘C’=printf
(“%d\n”, x);
}
(B) x=’A’;
switch(x)
{case ‘A’<=x
<=’C’ : printf (“%d\n”, x);}
(C) x=’A’;
switch(x)
{
case ‘A’ :
printf (“%d\n”, x);
break;
case ‘B’ :
printf (“%d\n”, x);
break;
case ‘C’ :
printf (“%d\n”, x);
break;
}
(D) x=’A’;
switch(x)
{
case ‘A’=printf
(“%d\n”, x);
case ‘B’=printf
(“%d\n”, x);
case ‘C’=printf
(“%d\n”, x);
}
Ans: correct
answer not given
14. Which of
the following is not true in C++ ?
(A) “Private”
elements of a base class are not accessible by members of its derived
class.
(B) “Protected”
elements of base class are not accessible by members of its derived
class.
(C) When base
class access specified is “Public”, public elements of
the base class become public members of its derived class.
(D) When base
class access specified is “Public”, protected elements of a base
class become protected members of its derived class.
Ans: B
15. Which of
the following is true of constructor function in C++ ?
(A) A class must
have at least one constructor.
(B) A constructor
is a unique function which cannot be overloaded.
(C) A constructor
function must be invoked with the object name.
(D) A constructor
function is automatically invoked when an object is created.
Ans: D
16. A
primary key for an entity is:
(A) a candidate
key (B) any attribute
(C) a unique
attribute (D) a super key
Ans: C
17.
Aggregate functions in SQL are:
(A) GREATEST,
LEAST and ABS
(B) SUM, COUNT and
AVG
(C) UPPER, LOWER
and LENGTH
(D) SQRT, POWER
and MOD
Ans: B
18. If a
relation is in 2NF and 3NF forms then:
(A) no non-prime
attribute is functionally dependent on other non-prime attributes
(B) no non-prime
attribute is functionally dependent on prime attributes
(C) all attributes
are functionally independent
(D) prime
attribute is functionally independent of all non-prime attributes
Ans: A
19. The end
of an SQL command is denoted by:
(A) an
end-of-line character
(B) an ‘enter-key’
marker
(C) entering F4
key
(D) a semicolon
(;)
Ans: D
20. Consider
the query : SELECT student_name FROM students WHERE
class_name=(SELECT class_name FROM students WHERE
math_marks=100); what will be the output ?
(A) the list of
names of students with 100 marks in mathematics
(B) the names of
all students of all classes in which at least one student
has 100 marks in mathematics
(C) the names of
all students in all classes having 100 marks in mathematics
(D) the names and
class of all students whose marks in mathematics is 100
Ans: B
21. Consider
a rooted tree in which every node has at least three
children. What is the minimum number of nodes at level i (i >
0) of the tree? Assume that the root is at level 0:
(A) 3i (B)
3i
(C) 3 (D) 3i
+ 1
Ans: A
22. Which of
the following data structure is used to implement recursion?
(A) Arrays
(B) Stacks
(C) Queues
(D) Linked lists
Ans: B
23. The
height of a binary tree with ‘n’ nodes, in the worst case is:
(A) O(log n)
(B) O(n)
(C) Ω(n log n)
(D) Ω(n2)
Ans: B
24. An
example of a file extension is:
(A) text
(B) pict
(C) mp3
(D) web
Ans: C
25. The
performance of a file system depends upon the cache hit rate. If it
takes 1 msec to satisfy a request from the cache but 10 msec to
satisfy a request if a disk read is needed, then the mean time (ms)
required for a hit rate ‘h’ is given by:
(A) 1
(B) h+10(1-h)
(C) (1-h) +10h
(D) 10
Ans: B
26. The best
known example of a MAN is:
(A) Ethernet
(B) Cable Television
(C) FDDI
(D) IEEE 802.3
Ans: B
27. In a
broadcast network, a layer that is often thin or non-existent is:
(A) network layer
(B) transport layer
(C) presentation
layer (D) application layer
Ans: A
28. The
maximum data rate of binary signals on a noiseless 3 KHz channel is:
(A) 3000 bps
(B) 6000 bps
(C) 9000 bps
(D) 12,000 bps
Ans: B
29. For pure
ALOHA, the maximum channel utilization is:
(A) 100%
(B) 50%
(C) 36%
(D) 18%
Ans: D
30. An example
of an adaptive routing algorithm is:
(A) distance
vector routing (B) flooding
(C) selective
flooding (D) shortest path routing
Ans: A
31. In a two
pass compiler, during the first pass:
(A) user defined
address symbols are correlated with their binary equivalent
(B) the syntax of
the statement is checked and mistakes, if any, are listed
(C) object program
is generated
(D) semantic of
the source program is elucidated.
Ans: A
32. A single
instruction in an assembly language program contains:
(A) one micro
operation
(B) one macro
operation
(C) one
instruction to be completed in a single pulse
(D) one machine
code instruction
Ans: B
33. Absolute
loader demands that the programmer needs to know the:
(A) start address
of the available main memory
(B) total size of
the program
(C) actual address
of the data location
(D) absolute
values of the operands used
Ans: A
34. Top-down
parsers are predictive parsers, because:
(A) next tokens
are predicted
(B) length of the
parse tree is predicted before hand
(C) lowest node in
the parse tree is predicted
(D) next lower
level of the parse tree is predicted
Ans: A
35. In the
context of compiler design, “reduction in strength” refers to:
(A) code
optimization obtained by the use of cheaper machine instructions
(B) reduction in
accuracy of the output
(C) reduction in
the range of values of input variables
(D) reduction in
efficiency of the program
Ans: A
36. How many
states can a process be in?
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
Ans: D
37. A
program has five virtual pages, numbered from 0 to 4. If the pages
are referenced in the order 012301401234, with three page frames, the
total number of page faults with FIFO will be equal to:
(A) 0 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 9
Ans: D
38. Average
process size=s bytes. Each page entry requires e bytes. The optimum
page size is given by:
(A) √(se)
(B) √(2se)
(C) s
(D) e
Ans: B
39. An
example of a directory found in most UNIX system is:
(A) usr
(B) waitpid
(C) brk
(D) unmap
Ans: A
40. The aging
algorithm with a=0.5 is used to predict run times. The previous four
runs from oldest to most recent are 40, 20, 20 and 15 msec. The
prediction for the next time will be:
(A) 15 msec
(B) 25 msec
(C) 39 msec
(D) 40 msec
Ans: B
41. A major
defect in water fall model in software development is that:
(A) the
documentation is difficult
(B) a blunder at
any stage can be disastrous
(C) a trial
version is available only at the end of the project
(D) the
maintenance of the software is difficult
Ans: C
42. Function
point metric of a software also depends on the:
(A) number of
function needed
(B) number of
final users of the software
(C) number of
external inputs and outputs
(D) time required
for one set of output from a set of input data
Ans: C
43. An error
message produced by an interactive system should have:
(A) always the
error code
(B) the list of
mistakes done by the user displayed
(C) a
non-judgemental approach
(D) the past
records of the occurrence of the same mistake
Ans: B
44. System
development cost estimation with use-cases is problematic because:
(A) of paucity of
examples
(B) the data can
be totally incorrect
(C) the expertise
and resource available are not used
(D) the problem is
being over simplified
Ans: B
45. The
approach to software testing is to design test cases to:
(A) break the
software
(B) understand the
software
(C) analyze the
design of sub processes in the software
(D) analyze the
output of the software
Ans: A
46. Given a
parallel algorithm A with computation time t, if parallel algorithm A
performs m computational operation, then p processors can execute
algorithm A in time given by:
(A) t/p
(B) mt/p
(C) t+(m-t)/p
(D) (m-t)/p
Ans: C
47. With
reference to implementation of different association mining
algorithms, identify the correct statement:
(A) The FP growth
method was usually better than the best implementation of the apriori
algorithm
(B) Apriori
algorithm is usually better than CHARM
(C) Apriori
algorithm is good when the support required is low
(D) At very low
support the number of frequent items becomes less
Ans: A
48. Consider
a typical mobile communication system. If 840 frequencies are
available, how many can be used in a given cell?
(A) 140
(B) 120
(C) 84
(D) 60
Ans: A
49. Identify
the incorrect statement:
(A) The internet
has evolved into phenomenally successful e-commerce engine
(B) e-business is
synonymous with e-commerce
(C) The e-commerce
model B2C did not begin with billboard ware
(D) The e-commerce
model G2C began with billboard ware
Ans: B
50. Identify
the incorrect statement:
(A) ATM provides
both real time and non-real time service
(B) ATM provides
faster packet switching than X.25
(C) ATM was
developed as part of the work on broadband ISDN
(D) ATM does not
have application in non-ISDN environments where very high data rates
are required
Ans: D
UGC NET is a professional exam, and this exam is also known as NTA-UGC-NET.
ReplyDeleteThis test is conducted by a national testing agency, UGC NET exam held twice in a year on behalf of the University grants commission that is UGC.
This test is conducted to test the eligibility at the national-level for Assistant Professor Post or JRF (Junior Research fellowship) in the top Indian universities or colleges.
The UGC NET exam consists of two papers, Paper I and Paper II, and both papers have the objective type questions or multiple choice questions that the questions have four options with one correct answer.
UGC NET
There must be questions that come to the mind of the candidates who are going to appear in UGC NET exam. In the following, there is important information regarding this exam.