SBI Specialist Officers Recruitment - Previous Year Question Paper - Logical Reasoning

Logical Reasoning Test

1.        A dog is taken out every evening by the owner whose house faces East. They walk 200m West, then 500m South. Which direction should they take to reach home?

A. North- east         B. North           C. North- west           D. South- east         E. none

2. S jogs 50m North, turns right & jogs 60m, turns right again & jogs 40m & then again turns right & jogs 60m. How far is he from his starting point?

         A. 20 m      B. 10 m        C. 100 m      D. 0 m            E. None

3. The time by Saurabh’s watch is half past three. If the hour hand points towards East, to which direction would minute hand point?

        A. North         B. East            C. South east            D. West         E. None

4. S & B starts from home in south direction and walk 45m each. S then turns left and walks 20m while B turns right and walks 70 m. How far are they from each other?

         A. 40 m         B. 80 m          C. 65 m           D. 90 m            E. None

5. S walks 18 m towards North. Turning left he walks 13 m more. Then again he turns left & walks 18 m and then after turning right he walks 13 m. How far is he from his starting point?

         A. 18 m           B. 30 m           C. 26 m       D. 43 m          E. 58 m

6. In a certain code ARCHIVE is written as DSBGFWJ. How is SYSTEMS written in that code?

        A. TZTSTNF         B. TZTUTNF         C. TZTSFNT         D. RXRSTNF         E. None

7. If ‘R’ denotes ‘divided by’; ‘T’ denotes ‘added to’ ; ‘W’ denotes ‘subtracted from’ and ‘B’ denotes ‘multiplied by’ then :

      15 W 12 T 8 R 2 B 6 = ?

      A. 11/12            B. 3 2/3         C. 27         D. 3          E. None

Q8 -12. A, B, C, D, E,F ,G, H, K are sitting around a circle facing the centre. B is 4^th to the left of G who is second to the right of C. F is 4^th to the right of C and is second to the left of K. A is 4^th to the right of K. D is not an immediate neighbor of either K or B. H is 3^rd to the right of E.

8. Who is 2^nd to the right of K?

       A. C        B. H         C. F         D. E          E. Data inadequate

9. Who is 3^rd to the right of H?

       A. D      B. A        C. G         D. F             E. None

10. Who is 4^th to the left of E?

      A. A          B. C           C. G              D. Data inadequate           E. None

11. Who is 4^th to the right of D?

      A. K           B. H          C. E         D. B           E. None

12. In which of the following combinations is the 3^rd person sitting in between the 1^st and 2^nd persons?

       A. EKB         B. CHB            C. AGC            D. FGD            E. None.

13. (14, 84)  (10, 40)  (12, 60)  (16, ___)

       A. 80          B. 112        C. 64          D. 48           E. None

14. 2, 10, 60, 420, 3360, _____

      A. 30240           B. 27840          C. 25140           D. 22240        E. None

15. 4, 1, -8, ____, -20, 29, -32, 43

       A. 17        B. 16            C. 15            D. 18        E. None

16.  __ s r __ t r __ s r s __ r __ s r s t __

       A. ttssrr         B. tsrtsr            C. strtrs          D. tstttr       E. None

17. a a __ b b __ a a __ a b b b b ___ a

       A. aabb         B. baba         C. abab           D. bbaa           E. None

18. In the series AHQ, DJR, GLS, JNT, ____ the next term is :

       A. LPU         B. MQU           C. MPU           D. MPV        E. None

19. ACE, GIK, ____, SUW, YAC

       A. MOQ          B. MNP         C. MOP           D. MPQ         E. None

20. Which group of letters should come in the blank in the following series of letter groups?

       EXTRAVAGANZA, TRAVAGANZA, TRAVAGANZ, AVAGANZ, _____________

       A. VAGANZ        B. VAGAN           C. AVAGA            D. AVAGAN        E. None       

Answers:

1.        A

2.        B

3.        E

4.        D

5.        C

6.        A

7.        C

8.        B

9.        C

10.     A

11.     D

12.     D

13.     B

14.     A

15.     C

16.     D

17.     D

18.     C

19.     A

20.     D

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SBI Specialist Officers Recruitment - Previous Year Question Paper - Quantitative Aptitude

Quantitative Aptitude Test

1.  If a pipe A fills a tank in 10 hours and a pipe B fills it in 15 hours, then the tank will be filled by A and B together in how much time?

A. 10 hrs.           B. 9 hrs              C. 6 hrs             D. 8 hrs

2. Two pipes P & Q can separately fill a cistern in 12 minutes and 18 minutes respectively. In how many minutes can both the pipes fill the cistern, if opened together?

              A. 7 1/5 min       B. 7 min             C. 7 ½ min       D. 10 min

3. Two piped A & B can fill a tank in 36 hrs and 45 hrs respectively. If both pipes are opened simultaneously, how much time will be taken to fill the tank?

             A. 20 hrs             B. 21 hrs             C. 22 hrs          D. None

4. A pipe can fill a tank in 15hrs. Due to leak in the bottom, it is filled in 20 hrs. If the tank is full, how much time will the leak take to empty it?

             A. 55 hrs            B. 60 hrs              C. 61 hrs          D. None

5. If a pipe A fills a tank in 10 hrs and pipe B empties it in 15 15 hrs, then in how much time will the tank be filled up if A & B are both opened?

            A. 4 hrs               B. 14 hrs              C. 20 hrs         D. 30 hrs

6. Two taps A & B can fill a water reservoir in 12 and 15 hrs respectively. How long would the two taps take to fill this reservoir if both are opened together?

           A. 6 ¼ hrs            B. 6 ½ hrs            C. 7 1/3 hrs      D. None

7. Two taps can fill a tank in 24 minutes and 30 minutes respectively. Both of them are opened together, but the first tap is turned off after 8 minutes. Now find how long would the second tap take to fill the tank.

           A. 24 ½ min        B. 12 min             C. 13 2/3 min       D. 16 min

8. Two pipes A & B can fill a tank in 24 min and 32 min respectively. If  both the pipes are opened simultaneously, the time after which B should be closed so that tank is filled in 18 minutes would be?

            A. 18 min           B. 10 min             C. 9 min             D. 8 min

9. Two pipes A & B can fill a tank  in 24 minutes and 36 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously, the time after which A should be closed so that tank is filled in 18 min would be?

           A. 12 min            B. 10 min             C. 9 min            D. None

10. Two pipes A & B separately fill a cistern in 12 and 15 min respectively while a 3^rd pipe C can empty it in 10 minutes. How long will it take to fill the cistern if all pipes are opened?

          A. 10 min            B. 20 min              C. 30 min          D. 22 min

11. A pipes fills a tank in 2 hrs and another files the tank in 3hrs but a 3^rd pipe empties the filled tank in 5 hrs. Then if three pipes are opened, the tank will be filled in:

          A. 1 hr                 B. 1 11/19 hr          C. 2 1/9             D. None

12. What is the value of:    1 ½

                                        

                                          1+ 1

                                                 1 + ¼

          A. 3/2            B. 5/4                   C. 5/6                D. 1

13. √342/36 * √729/ 9 * √25/ 196 =

          A. 135/14        B. 18/5        C. 18/7        D. None

14. 9.75 + 25.88 + x = 41.18

          A. 5.55          B. 5.75          C. 6.57          D. 4.23

15. 30% of 270 + 5/8 of 64 = x

           A. 120        B. 81          C. 121              D. 242

16. 73.85 + 215.345 – 167.2134 = x

          A. 456.4084          B. 121.6711           C. 120.8296            D. None

17. x% of 150 + 250 = 280

          A. 30       B. 10         C. 40           D. 20

18. 25% of 40 ÷4% of 25 = x

          A. 1        B. 10         C. 0          D. 2

19. Simplify: (3⁴ * 3⁷) ÷ 3¹⁰

             A. 3           B. 9           C. 27          D. 81

20. Find the value of:  2.70 * 2.70 + 4.30 * 4.30+ 8.60 * 2.70

                                                       2.70 + 4.30

           A. 6.8           B. 7.6          C. 7.0              D. 8.5

Answers:                                  

1. C
2. A                               
3. A
4. B
5. D
6. B
7. C
8. A       t = y ( 1 - z/x)
9. A       t = x ( 1 - z/y)
10. B
11. B
12. C
13. D
14. A
15. C
16. D
17. D
18. B
19. A
20. C

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SBI Specialist Officer Recruitment Previous Question Paper - English

English Language Test for SBI Specialist Cadre Recruitment

Q1-9.Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Some words / phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

In the second week of August 1998, just a few days after the incidents of bombing the US embassies in Nairobi and Dar- es- Salaam, a high- powered, brain- storming session was held near Washington DC, to discuss various aspects of terrorism, The meeting was attended by ten of America’s leading experts in various fields such as germ and chemical warfare, public health, disease control and also by the doctors and the law enforcing officers. Being asked to describe the horror of possible bio= attack, one of the experts narrated the following gloomy scenario.

A culprit in a crowded business centre or in a busy shopping mall of a town empties a test tube containing some fluid, which in turn creates an , unseen cloud of germ of a dreaded disease like anthrax, capable of inflicting a horrible death within  5 days on anyone who inhales it. At first, 500 or so victims feel that they have mid influenza which may recede after a day or two. Then the symptoms return again and their lungs start filling with fluid. They rush to local hospitals for treatment, but the panic- stricken people may find that the medicare services run quickly out of drugs due to excessive demand. But no one would be able to realize that a terrorist attack has occurred. One cannot deny the possibility that the germ involved would be of contagious variety capable of causing an epidemic. The meeting concluded that such attacks, apart from causing immediate human tragedy, would have dire long term effects on the political and social fabric of a country by way of ending people’s trust on the competence of the government.

The experts also said that the bombs used in Kenya and Tanzania were of the old fashion variety and involved large quantities of high explosives, but new terrorism will prove to be more deadly and probably more elusive than hijacking an aeroplane or a gelignite of previous decades. According Bruce Hoffman, an American specialist on political violence, old overthrow a colonial power or the capitalist system and so on. These terrorists were not shy about planting a bomb or hijacking an aircraft and they set some limit to their brutality. Killing so many innocent people might turn their natural supporters off. Political terrorists want a lot of people watching, but not a lot of people watching, but not a lot of people dead. “Old terrorism sought to change the  world while the new sort is often practiced by those who believe that the world has gone beyond redemption,” he added.

Hoffman says, “New Terrorism has no long term agenda, but is ruthless in its short- term intentions. It is often just a cacophonous cry of protest or an outburst of religious intolerance or a protest against the West in general and the US in particular. Its perpetrators may be religious fanatics or die- hard opponents of a government and see no reason to show restraint. They are simply intent on inflicting the maximum amount of pain on the victim.”

Q1. In the context of the passage, the culprit’s act of employing a test tube containing some fluid can be classified as:

      A. a terrorist attack      B. an epidemic of a dreaded disease      C. a natural calamity     D. panic created by an imaginary event    E. None

Q2. In what way would the new terrorism be different from that of the earlier years?

       i. more dangerous and less baffling     ii. more hazardous for victims     iii. less complicated for terrorists

       A. 1 & 3 only        B. 2 & 3 only        C. 1 & 2 only         D. All the three       E. None

Q3. What was the immediate provocation for the meeting held in August 1998?

      A. the insistence of America’s leading experts         B. the horrors of possible bio- attacks       C. a culprit’s heinous act of spreading germs

      D. people’s lack of trust in the government              E. None

Q4. What could be the probable consequences of bio- attacks, as mentioned in the passage?

       i. Several deaths       ii. Political turmoil          iii. Social unrest

      A. 1 only         B. 2 only        C. 3 only           D. 1 & 2 only          E. All three

Q5. The author’s purpose of writing the above passage seems to explain:    

      A. the methods to contain terrorism        B. the socio- political turmoil in African countries      C. the deadly  strategies adopted by modern         terrorists       D. reasons for killing innocent people        E. the salient features of terrorism of yester- year

Q6. According to the author of the passage, the root cause of terrorism is:

       i. religious fanaticism       ii. Socio- political changes in countries        iii. The enormous population growth

       A. 1 only         B. 2 only       C. 3 only        D. 1 & 2 only      E. All three

Q7. The phrases, such attacks, as mentioned in the last sentence of second paragraph, refers to:

       A. the onslaught on an epidemic as a natural calamity          B. bio- attack on political people in the government

       C. attack aimed at damaging the reputation of the government      D. bio- attack maneuvered by unscrupulous elements     E. None

Q8. The sole objective of the old terrorism, according to Hoffman, was to:

       A. plant bombs to kill innocent people      B. establish colonial power or capitalist system      C. make people realize the incompetence of the government      D. give a setback to socio- political order        E. None

Q9. Which of the following statements is true about new terrorism?

      A. Its immediate objectives are quite tragic       B. It has far- sighted goals to achieve     C. It can differentiate between the innocent people and the guilty     D. It is free from any political ideology         E. It advocates people in changing the socio- political order.

Q10-19. In the following passages there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are also printed below the passage and against each 5 words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate words in each case.

Fundamentally, all human __1__possess combination of fixed inherited traits. All men possess the __2__  highly developed nervous system, back- bones, erect posture, hair, etc. Therefore, __3__ among men arise only __4__ changes of this __5__ pattern. Racial __6__ represent one of the finest distinctions and are based on certain __7__ differences. Two races may be __8__ in hair colour, in eye colour but __9__ in stature while two others may be __10__  in stature but differ in the colour of eyes and hair.

Q10. A. animal          B. beings           C. mind                    D. society            E. thinking

Q11. A. large             B. different        C. same                    D. natural            E. biological

Q12. A. sameness      B. naturalness    C. growth                D. substance        E. variations

Q13. A. no                 B. large              C. fundamental        D. minor              E. artificial

Q14. A. fluctuating    B. mad               C. picturesque         D. basic                E. maddening

Q15. A. differences         B. clashes         C. hatred                 D. tolerance           E. sameness

Q16. A. clearcut              B. minor           C. unnoticeable       D. massive             E. neat

Q17. A. Alike                  B. different       C. mismatched        D. beautiful           E. untouched

Q18. A. matched             B. same             C. different             D. close                  E. tall

Q19. A. tall                     B. short              C. uncouth              D. ugly                   E. same

Q20-25. In the following questions choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Q20. INDICT

         A. condemn       B. reprimand          C. accuse        D. Allege       E. None

Q21. SCINTILLATING

         A. smouldering        B. gilittering           C. touching          D. warming         E. None

Q22. REFECTORY

         A. restaurant            B. parlour               C. living room     D. dining room    E. None

Q23. DISTINCTION

         A. diffusion             B. disagreement      C. different          D. degree             E. None

Q24. IMPROVEMENT

        A. advancement        B. betterment          C. promotion       D. preference       E. None

Q25. ADVERSITY

         A. failure                 B. helplessness        C. misfortune       D. crisis               E. None

Answers:

1. A
2. C
3. B
4. E
5. C
6. E
7. C
8. D
9. B
10. B
11. C
12. E
13. C
14. D
15. D
16. C
17. A
18. C
19. E
20. C
21. B
22. D
23. C
24. B
25. C

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SBI Specialist Officer (Assistant Manager - Systems) Previous Year Question Paper - Professional Knowledge (Computers)

[Hi guys, I have found somewhere on the web that this bits were the questions of Professional Knowledge section in previous exam of SBI Specialist Cadre Officers Recruitment (for Assistant Manager - Systems). You may find it helpful for preparing yourself for the examination to be held this year. Just take a look and try to solve it yourself.]

Q1- a ________ is approximately a million bytes.

a)      Gigabytes

b)     Kilobytes

c)      Megabyte

d)     Terabyte

e)      None of these

Q2- The programs which are as permanent as hardware and stored in ROM is known as-

a)      Hardware

b)     Software

c)      Firmware

d)     ROMware

e)      None of these

Q3- Memory is made up of

a)      Set of wires

b)     Set of circuits

c)      Large number of cells

d)     Set of optical fiber

e)      All of these

Q4- Primary memory stores

a)      Data alone

b)     Programs alone

c)      Results alone

d)     All of these

e)      None of these

Q5- EPROM can be used for

a)      erasing the contents of ROM

b)     Reconstructing the contents of ROM

c)      Erasing and reconstructing the contents of ROM

d)     Duplicating ROM

e)      None of these

Q6- Which device can understand difference between data and programs?

a)      Input device

b)     Output device

c)      Memory

d)     Microprocessor

e)      None of these

Q7- The contents of information are stored in –

a)      Memory data register

b)     memory address register

c)      Memory access register

d)     Memory arithmetic register

e)      None of these

Q8- Memory unit is one part of –

a)      Input device

b)     Control unit

c)      Output device

d)     Central processing

e)      None of these

 Q9- Algorithm and Flow chart help us to –

a)      Know the memory capacity

b)     Identify the base of a number system

c)      Direct the output to a printer

d)     Specify the problem completely and clearly

e)      None of these

Q10- Which of the following is not a valid size of a floppy disk?

a)      8”

b)     2¼”

c)      3 ½”

d)     5 ¼”

Q11- What is the name of the series of Laptop Computers manufactured by IBM called?

a)      Lappad

b)     Think pad

c)      Aptive

d)     Notepad

e)      None of these

Q12- What is the name of the 64 – bit micro processor developed by AMD?

a)      Opteron

b)     RISC-9000

c)      IMAC

d)     Athlon

e)      None of these

Q13- Which computer peripheral manufacturer quotes – “Empowering your PC”.

a)      Canon

b)     Epson

c)      Mercury

d)     Samsung

e)      None of these

Q14- SCSI is the term related with –

a)      Storage

b)     Network data transfer

c)      Keystroke rate

d)     Picture Resolution

e)      None of these

Q15- What are the units used to count the speed of the printer?

a)      CPM

b)     DPI

c)      PPM

d)     BIT

e)      None of these

Q16- What is the other name of LAN card?

a)      NIC

b)     Network Connector

c)      Modem

d)     Internet card

e)      None of these

Q17- Which of the following cable can transmitte data at high speed?

a)      Coaxial cable

b)     Optical Fiber Cable

c)      Twisted Pair Cable

d)     UTP Cable

e)      None of these

Q18- What is the name of latest server Operating System developed by Microsoft?

a)      Windows NT

b)     Windows 2000

c)      Windows XP

d)     Windows 2008

e)      None of these

Q19- Which of the following is a term related with scanner?

a)      Laser

b)     TWAIN

c)      Cartridge

d)     Media

e)      None of these

Q20- Who is the founder of Oracle Corporation?

a)      Bill Gates

b)     Harry Ellison

c)      Bill Joy

d)     Linux Torraled’s

e)      None of these

Q21- What is the name of the software that allows to see the web pages?

a)      Browser

b)     Mail Client

c)      FTP Client

d)     Messenger

e)      None of these

Q22- Which of these is a documented hoax virus?

a)      Mc donalds screen saver

b)     Alien Worm

c)      Merry Xmas

d)     Adolph

e)      None of these

Q23- What is the address given to a computer connected to a network called?

a)      System address

b)     SYSID

c)      Process ID

d)     IP address

e)      None of these

a)       

Q24- When you purchase a product over a mobile phone, the transaction is called.

a)      Web commerce

b)     E-Commerce

c)      M-Commerce

d)     Mobile purchase

e)      None of these

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